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MH SET Answer Key 2024, Check 07 April Maharashtra SET Exam Question Paper and Solution

Updated: Jun 8



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  1. What is percentage of total number of tourist visiting Agra? 25%

  2. Which type of tuoursts found maximum at Delhi? Englsih

  3. The information in the above table is to be represented diagrammatically using Pie diagram. What will be the angle of the sector representing item 90

  4. What is the ratio of expenditure of the item cement and bricks to the total expenditure of construction of house ? 3:10 Publish your book with AI and get huge income

  5. The following (X, Y) points are plotted on X-Y plane and the adjacent points are joined by smooth curve. Exponential Curve

  6. Identify the correct pair from the following:  Kbps - unit of data transfer rate.

  7.  When you access a site with 'https' instead of 'http' in the address bar, it primarily means  You are accessing a secure communication

  8. The correct chronological order of the first launch of these internet-based facilities is:  Wikipedia, Gmail, YouTube, Instagram

  9. Which of the following has not been appointed as a national coordinator for SWAYAM to ensure the quality of the course content ? Indian Institute of Science

  10. In the context of Web 2.0, the abbreviation UGC stands for: User Generated Content

  11. What is the target year for achieving the Sustainable Development Goals? 2030

MH SET Answer Key 2024
MH SET Answer Key 2024

12. Which of the following is the effect of photochemical smog ? Headaches, eyes, nose and throat irritation

13. The Millennium Development Goals (MDGs) were adopted by the United Nations in: 2000

14. What is the term for the process of inoculating microbes into soil ? Bioaugmentation Bioaugmentation is the term for the process of inoculating microbes into soil. This is done to introduce beneficial microorganisms that can improve soil health, degrade pollutants, or promote plant growth.

15. Which component of a solar panel is responsible for directly generating electric current when exposed to sunlight ? Semiconductor material The component of a solar panel responsible for directly generating electric current when exposed to sunlight is the semiconductor material. Solar panels typically use silicon as the primary semiconductor material. When sunlight hits the silicon, it creates an electric current through the photovoltaic effect.

16. Environmental Education is not just 1 awareness and knowledge, but it is also development of Proper attitude

17Indian education system generally is divided into following periods Vedic period, Buddhist period, Muslim period, British period, Post-Independence period

18. IN correspondence education system 1 the following things are included: Guiding instructions and solved answers.

19. The First Open University was started in 1969 at Milton Keynes in England The first Open University was established in 1969 at Milton Keynes in England. It was a pioneering institution that made higher education accessible through distance learning.

20. According to Muslim System of 2 Education, 'Madarsa' is supposed to be the centre of Primary Education In the Muslim system of education, a Madarsa is traditionally a center for primary education. It focuses on teaching foundational Islamic knowledge, Arabic language, and basic literacy and numeracy skills.

21. If taught on memory level of teaching, 2 the students get tremendous power for acquisition of Only (i)

22. Teaching purely for memorization is limited in its effectiveness. While it can help students acquire factual information (i), it doesn't necessarily develop:

  1. The teacher should choose teaching method considering (i) Nature of the learners (ii) Nature of the objectives to be realized (iii) The teacher's own ability and proficiency (A) Only (i) (B) (i) and (ii) (C) (i), (ii) and (iii) (D) Only (ii)


(i), (ii) and (iii)


.

23. What is the main characteristic of gifted students ?

They are independent in their judgement


24. For adult learners, instruction needs to focus

equally on the process and the content to be taught


25. evaluation gives a clear idea about understanding of the student regarding particular content.

Answer: (C) Summative


Explanation: Summative assessment is used to evaluate a student's understanding of a particular content area at the end of a unit, course, or program. It helps measure what students have learned and how well they have achieved the learning objectives.


26. is the characteristic of qualitative research.

Answer: (C) In-depth exploration of meanings and experiences

Explanation: Qualitative research focuses on understanding the "why" and "how" of human behavior. It involves collecting non-numerical data like interviews, observations, and documents to explore meanings, experiences, and perspectives.


27. is a limitation of positivism in research.

Answer: (B) It tends to oversimplify complex social phenomenon

Explanation: Positivism, a research philosophy, emphasizes objective and measurable data. A limitation is that it can oversimplify complex social phenomena by focusing on quantifiable aspects and neglecting the subjective experiences and interpretations of participants.


28. Continuous formative assessment helps teachers to identify students who are struggling and need extra help.

Answer: True

Explanation: Formative assessment is an ongoing process used to monitor student learning and adjust instruction accordingly. By identifying students who are struggling early on, teachers can provide targeted support to help them succeed.


29. Authentic assessments are always based on standardized tests.

Answer: False

Explanation: Authentic assessments are tasks that require students to apply their knowledge and skills in real-world situations. Standardized tests, while sometimes used for assessment, are not the only form of authentic assessment.


30. The purpose of rubrics is to provide clear and specific criteria for evaluating student performance.

Answer: True

Explanation: Rubrics are scoring guides that outline the expectations for different levels of performance on an assignment or task. They help ensure consistency and fairness in evaluation.


31. The given passage states that Mahatma Gandhi largely succeeded in (C) moulding the millions in India.

The passage explains how Gandhi transformed the Indian people from a passive group to one with self-respect, self-reliance, and the ability to resist and act collectively.


32. What do you understand by the phrase "to be rid of" means (A) Released/freed from something.

In the context of the passage, "to be rid of" signifies wanting to be free from their burdens, which refers to the oppression and hardships faced by the Indian people.


33. What did Mahatma Gandhi represent? (D) The spirit and honour of India

The passage highlights Gandhi as embodying the essence and dignity of India, reflecting the aspirations of millions seeking liberation from their struggles.


34. The main contribution of Gandhi to India has been (B) the powerful movements.

The passage emphasizes Gandhi's leadership in launching impactful movements through the National Congress, shaping the Indian people.


35. What, do you think, is the correct meaning of the term "bourgeois"? (C) Middle class with conventional, conservative and materialistic values

In the context of historical movements, "bourgeois" typically refers to the middle class, often associated with characteristics like social respectability, economic ambition, and a focus on material progress.


36. Which of the following messages is less likely to be misunderstood or misinterpreted due to cultural or linguistic background of the receivers of the message: (D) message full of iconic signs

Iconic signs, like universally recognized symbols (e.g., restroom sign, traffic signals), transcend cultural and linguistic barriers more effectively compared to written or spoken language or body language, which can have variations in interpretation across cultures.


37. In the context of contemporary digital paralance what are the following symbols collectively called as: :-) :-( ;-) :-x

Answer: (B) Emoticons

These simple faces created with punctuation marks and letters are called emoticons. While smileys (happy faces) are a type of emoticon, emoticons encompass a wider range of emotional expressions.


38. In the context of non-verbal communication identify the incorrect statement:

Answer: (B) Non-verbal cues and messages are easy to control.

Non-verbal communication, which includes body language, facial expressions, and tone of voice, is often subconscious and can be difficult to completely control. While some people can be more adept at masking their non-verbal cues, it's not always easy.


39. What is Prasar Bharati?

Answer: (D) It is India's state owned Public Broadcaster

Prasar Bharati is the autonomous body established by the Parliament of India that oversees public service broadcasting in the country. It manages All India Radio (AIR) and Doordarshan (DD), the national radio and television networks.


40. Which of the following elements is facilitated much more in a communicative situation wherein teacher and students are sitting together in a circular manner facing each other?


(D) Level of interactions between the students

A circular seating arrangement where the teacher and students face each other can promote a more interactive learning environment compared to a traditional classroom setup. Here's why:

  • Reduced focus on teacher dominance: The circular format de-emphasizes the hierarchical structure and encourages student participation.

  • Increased eye contact and engagement: Students can easily see and connect with each other, fostering discussions and peer learning.

  • Enhanced participation: The circular flow facilitates turn-taking and allows for more students to be involved in discussions.

While other elements like content delivery (A) and discipline (C) can occur in any seating arrangement, a circular format is particularly conducive to student interaction (D).


41. What is the arithmetic mean of the integers from 1 to 51?

The arithmetic mean is simply the average, which can be found by adding all the numbers and dividing by the total number of numbers. In this case:

  • Total numbers = 51 (from 1 to 51)

  • Sum of numbers = (51 x 52)/2 (formula for sum of consecutive numbers)

  • Average (mean) = (51 x 52)/2 / 51 = 52/2 = 26

Therefore, the arithmetic mean is (C) 26.


42. If 10m (m is positive integer) divides the product of the integers from 101 to 151, then the maximum value of m is:

The product of consecutive integers from 101 to 151 will definitely include all the factors from 2 to 10 (since every number is divisible by at least one of these numbers). Since 10m needs to divide this product, 'm' must be a factor of 10.

Out of the given options:

  • 10 itself is a factor (A, B, C, D).

  • 11 and 12 are not factors of 10 (eliminate B and C).

Therefore, the maximum value of 'm' is (D) 10.


43. Among the three numbers, X=188181811881, and Z 881181811818 811881188118 which numbers are divisible by 18?

Answer: (C) Z only

A number is divisible by 18 if it is divisible by both 2 and 9.

  • Divisibility by 2: The last digit should be even. Only Z (811881188118) ends in an even digit (8).

  • Divisibility by 9: The sum of the digits must be divisible by 9.

  • Sum of digits of X (188181811881) = 55 (not divisible by 9)

  • Sum of digits of Y (combination not provided but follow the same logic as X) - unlikely to be divisible by 9 based on the pattern.

  • Sum of digits of Z (811881188118) = 72 (divisible by 9)

Therefore, only Z is divisible by 18.


44. A person was working to transfer bricks from a place X to a place Y, where the distance between X and Y is 200 meters. At a time the person was carrying 15 bricks. Starting from the place X, after travelling 5.5 km while working, how many bricks were shifted to the place Y by the person?


Answer: There seems to be a discrepancy in the question. 5.5 km is a much larger distance compared to 200 meters (which is 0.2 km).

Assuming the distance is indeed 200 meters (0.2 km), we can solve it as follows:

  • Number of trips made = Total distance / Distance covered per trip = 0.2 km / (unknown distance per trip, but we know he carries 15 bricks/trip)

  • We cannot determine the exact number of trips or total bricks transferred without knowing the distance covered per trip (which depends on the person's walking speed and stamina while carrying bricks).

45. There are 64 deer in a forest in the present year. If x(n) denotes the number of deer in the forest in 3 year n and that x(n)=x(n-1) for 2 n = 1, 2, 3, how many deer are there in the 5th year in the forest?


Answer: The given information states that the number of deer remains the same in each year (x(n) = x(n-1)). This means the deer population is not growing or decreasing.

Therefore, the number of deer in the 5th year will also be the same as the initial count, which is (A) 64.


46. Conclusions based on Statements:

Statement I: Some tigers are goats. (This is an illogical statement, but we need to analyze it for conclusions) Statement II: All political leaders are intelligent.


Conclusion 1: Some goats are not tigers.

Answer: (D) Neither 1 nor 2**

  • We cannot logically derive anything about goats (Conclusion 1) from the statement that some tigers are goats (Statement I).

  • Statement II (all political leaders are intelligent) is a general statement that might not always be true.

47. Bus Positions:

  • Thane bus was ahead of Nasik bus.

  • Nasik bus was ahead of Jalgaon bus. (So Thane > Nasik > Jalgaon)

  • Amravati bus was behind Dhule bus. (We cannot determine Amravati's position relative to Thane, Nasik, Jalgaon yet)

  • Amravati bus was ahead of Thane bus. (This creates a contradiction)

Due to the contradiction (Amravati being both ahead and behind Thane), it's impossible to determine the exact position of Amravati and consequently the second last bus.

Answer: Not Determinable due to contradiction in information.



48. Coding Language

We can't decipher a perfect pattern from a single example (JKLM -> OSVX). It's likely there's a combination of shifting positions and letter substitutions involved. Without more examples, it's impossible to determine the exact code for DEFG.


49. Code Language

There's not enough information to crack the code definitively. We see a potential pattern where D = 6, A = 3, and C = 5. However, with only one example, it's difficult to confirm this pattern or determine the codes for F, E, and G.


50. Virat's Direction and Distance

Let's analyze Virat's movements step-by-step:

  1. Starts facing South and walks 15 meters South.

  2. Turns right (90 degrees) and walks 10 meters (now facing West).

  3. Turns right again (another 90 degrees) and walks 15 meters (now facing North).

  4. Turns left (90 degrees) and walks 15 meters (now facing East).

Direction: He ends up facing East (opposite of his starting direction - South).

Distance:

  • Net movement in North direction = 15 meters North (step 3) - 0 meters South (no South movement after step 1).

  • Net movement in East direction = 0 meters East (no East movement before step 4) + 10 meters East (step 2).

Therefore, Virat is now (A) East, 15 meters away from the starting point. The 15 meters refer to the net Northward movement, not a straight East direction.



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MH SET Answer Key 2023, Check 26 March 2023 Maharashtra SET Exam Question Paper and Solution




  1. Problem solving methods are used by the teacher in ................ level of teaching.

(A) Memory (B) Understanding (C) Reflective (D) Basic


Answer: (C) Reflective


Explanation:

  • Memory level: This level focuses on rote memorization of facts and figures. Problem-solving methods are not emphasized here.

  • Understanding level: While students strive to understand concepts, applying problem-solving methods might not be a primary goal.

  • Reflective level: This level encourages students to go beyond basic understanding. Here, problem-solving methods become crucial as students analyze problems, explore solutions, and reflect on their thinking process.

  • Basic level: This term is not commonly used in describing teaching levels. It's likely more specific to a curriculum or learning stage.


2. Feedback of classroom teaching from .................... is a valuable feedback for teachers.

(A) Students and Librarian (B) Colleagues and Librarian

(C) Students and Parents (D) Students and Colleagues


Answer: (D) Students and Colleagues


Explanation:

  • Students and Librarian: While librarians can offer valuable resources and insights, student feedback is more directly related to the teacher's effectiveness in the classroom.

  • Colleagues and Librarian: Feedback from colleagues who observe teaching methods is valuable. However, the librarian's role primarily focuses on library resources.

  • Students and Parents: Parental feedback can be helpful, but student feedback provides a more direct perspective on the classroom experience and learning outcomes.

  • Students and Colleagues: This combination offers a well-rounded view. Students provide insights into their experience, and colleagues can offer valuable feedback on teaching methods and classroom dynamics.


3. SWAYAM stands for .......................

(A) School Webs of Action-Learning for Youth Aspiring Maps

(B) Study Websites of ActionLearning for Young Aspiring Minds

(C) School Websites of ActiveLearning for Youth Aspiring Maps 

(D) Study Webs of Active-Learning for Young Aspiring Minds


Answer: (B) Study Webs of Active-Learning for Young Aspiring Minds

Explanation: SWAYAM actually stands for "Study Webs of Active-Learning for Young Aspiring Minds". It's a program launched by the Government of India to provide free online courses in various subjects. While the other options might seem plausible at first glance, the actual meaning of SWAYAM focuses on active learning for young minds.


4. .................... is more suitable method for teaching of History.

(A) Role Play Method ✔

(B) Demonstration Method

(C) Experimentation Method

(D) Deductive Method


Answer: (A) Role Play Method


Explanation:

  • Role Play Method: This method allows students to enact historical events, bringing history to life and fostering deeper understanding. Students can embody historical figures and explore different perspectives.

  • Demonstration Method: While demonstrations can be helpful for specific skills in history (e.g., using historical tools), it's less engaging than role-playing for overall comprehension.

  • Experimentation Method: This method is not typically used in history as it focuses on controlled testing and variables, not historical events.

  • Deductive Method: This method involves drawing conclusions from general principles. While historical analysis can involve drawing conclusions, it primarily relies on analyzing evidence and sources.


5. Learning process is monitored by ............... Evaluation.


(A) Diagnostic

(C) Formative

(B) Placement

(D) Summative

Answer: (C) Formative


Explanation:

  • Diagnostic Evaluation: This type of evaluation identifies a student's strengths and weaknesses at the beginning of learning to tailor instruction accordingly.

  • Placement Evaluation: This assessment helps determine a student's appropriate starting point in a learning program or course.

  • Formative Evaluation: This ongoing process monitors student learning throughout a course. It provides feedback that helps teachers adjust their teaching methods and students improve their learning.

  • Summative Evaluation: This assessment measures student learning at the end of a unit, course, or program to gauge overall achievement.


6. A researcher must have ...................

(A) Attitude towards research

(B) Research aptitude

(C) Knowledge about research ✔

(D) Mastery over own subject


Answer: (C) Knowledge about research

Explanation:

While all the options can be valuable for a researcher, having a strong foundation of knowledge about research methodologies, data analysis techniques, and research ethics is crucial. This knowledge equips researchers to design effective studies, collect and analyze data accurately, and interpret their findings meaningfully.


  • Attitude towards research: A positive and curious attitude is certainly beneficial, but it's not the sole requirement.

  • Research aptitude: This refers to the inherent skills and abilities conducive to research, which can be developed alongside research knowledge.

  • Mastery over own subject: Deep subject knowledge is essential, but it needs to be complemented by a broader understanding of research methods to conduct effective studies.

7. Recording of ................. in qualitative research is called as memoing.

(A) Reflective notes ✔

(B) Memory notes

(C) Understanding notes

(D) Research notes

Answer: (A) Reflective notes

Explanation:

In qualitative research, memoing refers to the process of recording and reflecting on observations, thoughts, and emerging insights throughout the research process. These reflective notes help researchers document their evolving understanding of the phenomenon under study.

  • Memory notes: While researchers might jot down initial observations, memoing goes beyond mere memory recall. It involves deeper reflection and analysis.

  • Understanding notes: This term is not commonly used in qualitative research. Memoing focuses on capturing broader insights, not just comprehension.

  • Research notes: This is a broader term encompassing various types of notes taken during research. Memoing is a specific type of research note with a focus on reflection.

8. For detecting errors in teaching-learning process, the appropriate data collection tool will be .......... .

(A) Achievement test

(B) Diagnostic test ✔

(C) Standardized test

(D) Post-test

Answer: (B) Diagnostic test

Explanation:

  • Achievement test: This measures learning outcomes at the end of instruction. It won't pinpoint specific errors in the ongoing teaching-learning process.

  • Diagnostic test: This type of assessment is specifically designed to identify students' learning strengths and weaknesses at the beginning of instruction or during the learning process. It helps detect errors and allows teachers to adjust their teaching methods accordingly.

  • Standardized test: These tests are designed for large-scale comparisons and might not be tailored to the specific teaching-learning process in a particular classroom.

  • Post-test: This is administered after a unit or course to evaluate learning outcomes. While it can reveal areas needing improvement, it doesn't pinpoint ongoing errors in the teaching process itself.


9. If a frequency distribution has some extreme scores, then appropriate measure of variability will be .........

(A) Range

(B) Quartile Deviation ✔

(C) Average Deviation

(D) Standard Deviation

Answer: (B) Quartile Deviation

Explanation:

  • Range: This is simply the difference between the highest and lowest scores. It's highly sensitive to extreme scores and can be misleading when outliers are present.

  • Quartile Deviation (QD): This statistic focuses on the middle 50% of the data (between the first and third quartiles). It's less influenced by extreme scores compared to the range or standard deviation, making it a better choice for data with outliers.

  • Average Deviation: Similar to standard deviation, it considers the deviations of each data point from the mean. However, it uses absolute values (distances) instead of squared deviations. While less sensitive than the range, it can still be affected by extreme scores.

  • Standard Deviation (SD): This is a widely used measure of variability, but it can be significantly impacted by outliers. The squaring of deviations in the calculation gives more weight to extreme scores.

10. Standard of research journal is decided on ....................

(A) Publisher

(B) Impact factor ✔

(C) Citation Index

(D) Printing of the journal

Answer: (B) Impact factor

Explanation:

  • Publisher: While some well-established publishers might be known for quality research, the publisher itself doesn't solely determine the standard of a journal.

  • Impact factor: This metric reflects how often articles from a particular journal are cited by other researchers. A high impact factor generally indicates a higher standard journal that publishes influential research.

  • Citation Index: This refers to the total number of times a journal's articles have been cited. While it can be a factor, impact factor considers both the number of citations and the citing journals' importance.

  • Printing of the journal: The format (print vs. online) doesn't necessarily determine the standard. High-quality research can be published in both formats.


Answer Question Nos. 11 to 15 based on either the English passage


Political education has many connotations. It may be defined as the preparation of a citizen to take well informed, responsible and sustained action for participation in the national struggle in order to achieve the socio-economic objectives of the country. The predominant socio-economic objectives in India are the abolition of poverty and the creation of an egalitarian society that would replace the present traditional, feudal, hierarchical social setup. Under the colonial rule, the Congress leaders argued that political education was an important part of education and refused to accept the official view that education and politics should not be mixed with one another. But when they came to power in 1947 they almost adopted the British policy and began to talk of education being defiled by politics. ‘Hands off education’ was the call to political parties. But in spite of it, political infiltration into the educational system has greatly increased in the sense that different political parties vie with each other to capture the mind of teachers and students. The wise academicians wanted political support, without political interference. What we have actually received is infinite political interference with little genuine political support. This interference with the educational system by political parties for their own ulterior motives is no political education at all and with the all round growth of elitism, it is hardly a matter for surprise that real political education within the school system (which really means the creation of a commitment to social transformation) has been even weaker than in the preindependence period.


11. The word that is nearly opposite in meaning of ‘defile’ is ..................

(A) Sanctify ✔ (B) Decry (C) Devaluate (D) Satiate

Answer: (A) Sanctify

  • Defile: To make something unclean or impure.

  • Sanctify: To make something holy or sacred. (Opposite meaning)

  • Decry: To criticize strongly. (Not the opposite)

  • Devaluate: To reduce the value of something. (Not the opposite)

  • Satiate: To satisfy completely. (Not the opposite)

12. The author of the passage suggests that the main purpose of political education should be ..................

(A) Propagating elitism (B) Changing the education system qualitatively ✔(C) Creating an egalitarian society (D) Preparing the youth having high emotional quotient

Answer: (C) Creating an egalitarian society

The passage criticizes the current state of political education, which focuses on political parties' agendas rather than social transformation. The emphasis seems to be on creating a more equal society (egalitarian) through genuine political education.


13. According to the passage the close meaning of ‘connotation’ is ...........

(A) Different meanings ✔ (B) Invoked meanings (C) Similar meanings (D) Invited meanings

Answer: (A) Different meanings

  • Connotation: The various associations or ideas suggested by a word beyond its literal meaning. (This aligns with the passage where "political education" has various interpretations)

  • Invoked meanings: Not an exact match. Invoked suggests something being called upon, not necessarily different meanings.

  • Similar meanings: Opposite of what connotation implies.

  • Invited meanings: Similar to invoked meanings, not a perfect fit.

14. How has politics been related to educational institutions?


(A) There was no political interference even though they got political support (B) There was neither political support nor political interference (C) They got political support at the cost of political interference ✔ (D) Without political support, there was quite a lot political interference


Answer: (C) They got political support at the cost of political interference

The passage discusses the shift in approach by the Congress party. Initially, they advocated for political education. However, after gaining power, they distanced themselves from it, leading to increased political interference by various parties for their own benefit.


15. In the passage ‘Hands off education’ suggests that politicians should ........

(B) Protect the education system ✔ (C) Be silent spectators of the educational system (D) Produce working hands


Answer: (B) Protect the education system

The phrase "Hands off education" is a call to stop political parties from interfering with the educational system. It implies a desire to protect the educational system from undue influence.


16. In any organization, information is being shared among all the members. This type of communication is ...........................

(A) Internal ✔ (B) External (C) Upward (D) Downward

Explanation:

  • Internal communication: This refers to the flow of information within an organization, among all members at different levels. It's crucial for keeping everyone informed and aligned.

  • External communication: This involves information exchange between the organization and external audiences like customers, suppliers, or the public.

  • Upward communication: This is the flow of information from lower-level employees to supervisors or management.

  • Downward communication: This refers to information flowing from management or higher levels to employees below them.

17. Cultural difference between sender and receiver may affect ................

(A) Message ✔ (B) Media (C) Effectiveness of communication (D) Feedback

Explanation:

  • Message: Cultural differences can significantly impact how a message is interpreted. What seems clear to the sender might be ambiguous or offensive to the receiver due to cultural background.

  • Media: While cultural differences can influence the preferred communication channels (e.g., email vs. face-to-face meetings), the medium itself might not be directly affected.

  • Effectiveness of communication: Cultural differences can hinder clear communication, leading to misunderstandings and decreased effectiveness.

  • Feedback: Cultural norms can influence how feedback is given and received. What might be considered direct in one culture could be seen as rude in another.


18. According to .................... communication means a transfer of understandable information between two persons. (A) F.G. Meyer (B) G.G. Brown (C) Dr. Deval (D) Millar

Answer: It's difficult to pinpoint the exact answer without referring to specific sources or definitions. There are many scholars who have defined communication. Here are a few examples:

  • Harold Lasswell: Proposed a communication model focusing on "who says what in which channel to whom with what effect."

  • Claude Shannon and Warren Weaver: Developed a mathematical model for communication, emphasizing the technical aspects of information transmission.

  •  Wilbur Schramm: Defined communication as "the process by which information is transmitted between individuals and organizations in such a way that it is understood and acted upon."

19. Effective communication may be shown by ..................... this equation. (A) MS – MR = 0 (B) MR – MS = 0 (C) MS – MR = +1 (D) MR – MS = –1 where : MS –message sent by sender MR –message received by receiver

Answer: (A) MS – MR = 0

Explanation:

  • In effective communication, the message received by the receiver (MR) should be as close as possible to the message sent by the sender (MS). This minimal difference is represented by the equation MS – MR = 0.

20. The element which badly affects the effectiveness of communication is called as ......................... (A) Feedback (B) Projection (C) Message (D) Noise

Answer: (D) Noise**

Explanation:

  • Noise: This refers to any interference that disrupts the communication process. It can be external noise (loud sounds) or internal noise (distractions, cultural differences, emotional state). Noise hinders the clear transmission and understanding of the message.

  • Feedback: While sometimes misinterpreted feedback can create issues, it's generally a crucial element for ensuring understanding. Effective communication involves a two-way flow of information, including feedback.

  • Projection: This is a psychological defense mechanism where someone attributes their own thoughts or feelings onto others. While projection can create misunderstandings, it's not the primary factor affecting communication effectiveness.

  • Message: The message itself is an essential element, but a well-crafted message can still be hindered by noise or other factors.

21. The number of eight-bit computer words formed by 0s and 1s with exactly three 1s and five 0s is : (A) 15 (B) 56 (C) 65 ✔ (D) 30

This problem can be solved using the combination formula. Here's how:

  • We have 8 slots for the bits (0 or 1).

  • We need to place 3 ones (1) and 5 zeros (0).

We can treat all the 1s and 0s as identical objects since their order doesn't matter in this case. So, we're basically finding the number of ways to arrange 3 identical objects (1s) and 5 identical objects (0s) in 8 slots.

Solution:

The combination formula to choose r items from n objects (where order doesn't matter) is:

nCr = n! / (r! * (n-r)!)

Here, n (total objects) = 8 (8 slots) r (identical objects to choose) = 3 (3 ones)

Apply the formula:

8C3 = 8! / (3!  (8-3)!) = 8  7  6 / (3  2 * 1) = 56

Therefore, there are 56 eight-bit computer words formed with exactly three 1s and five 0s.

22. The following is a list of various committees with their members : X1 = {a, b, c, d}, X2 = {x, b, d, y}, X3 = {x, y, a}, X4 = {y, b}, X5 = {x, a, b}, X6 = {y, a, b}, X7 = {x, y, a, b} How many ways can we select representatives of the committees so that no two committees have the same representative? (A) 5 (B) 3 (C) 1 (D) 0

This problem requires a bit more complex logic. Here's a step-by-step approach:

  1. Identify the constraint: No two committees can have the same representative. This means each committee must send a unique representative.

  2. Consider the committees with the most members:

  • X7: This committee has all four members (a, b, x, y). Since other committees cannot share representatives, representatives for X7 must be chosen from its members itself. There are 4 choices we can make here (a, b, x, or y).

  1. Remaining committees:

  • After selecting a representative for X7, the remaining committees (X1 to X6) can only choose from the remaining 3 members.

  • However, there's a catch. Some committees might have overlapping members with X7. For example, both X3 (x, y, a) and X7 share member "a".

  1. Account for overlap:

  • We need to avoid double-counting committees that share members with X7.

  • Let's analyze the committees:

  • X1 (a, b, c, d) - Doesn't share any members with X7 (already chosen). We have 3 choices left (b, c, or d).

  • X2 (x, b, d, y) - Shares "b" with X7. We can only choose from the remaining 2 members (d or y).

  • X3 (x, y, a) - Shares "a" with X7. We can only choose from the remaining 1 member (x or y). (We already counted x as a possibility from X7, so we can't choose it again).

  • X4 (y, b) - Shares "b" with X7. We can only choose from the remaining 1 member (y). (We already counted y as a possibility from X7, so we can't choose it again).

  • X5 (x, a, b) - Shares both "a" and "b" with X7. No representative possible from here (all members already counted).

  • X6 (y, a, b) - Shares both "a" and "b" with X7. No representative possible from here (all members already counted).

  1. Total possibilities:

  • Representative from X7 (4 choices)

  • Representative from X1 (3 choices)

  • Representative from X2 (2 choices)

  • Representative from X3 (1 choice, considering overlap)

  • Representative from X4 (1 choice, considering overlap


23. In a rectangular standing arrangement of persons in four rows, each row having four persons. If jth person in the ith row is asked to move to the place of ith person of jth row for all i = 1, 2, 3, 4 and j = 1, 2, 3, 4, then how many persons have changed their original position? (A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 12 ✔ (D) 16

Let's analyze the movement of people:

  1. People who stay in their positions:  Consider the people at the diagonal positions (i = j) like (1,1), (2,2), (3,3), and (4,4). These individuals are asked to switch places with themselves, resulting in no movement.

  2. People who change positions: Everyone except those on the diagonal will move. There are 4 rows, and each row has 4 people (excluding the diagonal). So, the total number of people who change positions is 4 rows * 3 people/row (excluding diagonal) = 12 people.

Therefore, 12 people change their original positions.


24. A water tank fills in 6 hrs with the first tap; it takes 12 hrs for another tap to tap to fill the tank. If both the taps are turned on simultaneously, how long will it take to fill a vacant tank? (A) 3 hours (B) 3 hours 30 minutes (C) 4 hours ✔ (D) 4 hours 30 minutes

This is a classic work rate problem. We can solve it using the concept of part filled per hour.

  • Rate of tap 1 (fills the tank in 6 hours) = 1/6 (part filled per hour)

  • Rate of tap 2 (fills the tank in 12 hours) = 1/12 (part filled per hour)

When both taps work together, their combined rate is the sum of their individual rates.

Combined rate = 1/6 + 1/12 = 1/4 (part filled per hour)

This means both taps together can fill 1/4th of the tank in 1 hour.

To fill the entire tank (which is 1 part), the combined time taken will be:

Time = Total part / Combined rate = 1 / (1/4) = 4 hours

Therefore, it will take 4 hours to fill the vacant tank when both taps are turned on simultaneously.


25. If X gets 10% points higher than Y, then what is the percentage of Y gets less points than X? (A) 9 (B) 10 (C) 91/11 ✔ (D) 11/10


Let's say Y gets a base score of 100 points.

X gets 10% more points than Y, so X gets 100 points + (10% of 100 points) = 100 + 10 = 110 points.

The question asks for the percentage Y gets less than X. This translates to the difference between X's score and Y's score divided by Y's score (base score) and then multiplied by 100% to express it as a percentage.

Percentage difference = ((X's score - Y's score) / Y's score) * 100%

= ((110 points - 100 points) / 100 points) * 100%

= (10 points / 100 points) * 100%

= 10/1 * 1% (We can simplify 100/100 to 1)

= 10%

However, the question asks for the percentage Y gets less than X. Since Y gets 10% less than X, we need to express this as a negative percentage to reflect the difference.

Therefore, Y gets 10/1 * -1% = -10%.

But percentages cannot be negative. So, we convert it to a positive percentage by taking the absolute value:

| -10% | = 10%

There's another way to approach this and arrive at the answer directly. Since X gets 10% more than Y, Y gets 100% - 10% = 90% of the points X gets. This translates to Y getting 90/100  X's points = 9/10



26. In a running race Rani was behind Shobha, who was ahead of Aditi. Rehana was behind Aditi and ahead of Rani. Which is the correct order from front to back in their race? (A) Aditi-Shobha-Rani-Rehana (B) Shobha-Aditi-Rehana-Rani (C) Shobha-Rehana-Aditi-Rani ✔ (D) Rani-Shobha-Rehana-Aditi


Analyze the statements:

  • Shobha is ahead of Aditi.

  • Rehana is behind Aditi.

  • Rani is behind Shobha.

Based on this information, we can arrange them from front to back:

  1. Shobha (Since she's ahead of everyone else)

  2. Rehana (She's behind Aditi, who hasn't been placed yet)

  3. Aditi (We know she's behind Shobha and ahead of Rehana)

  4. Rani (She's behind everyone else)

Therefore, the correct order is Shobha-Rehana-Aditi-Rani.


27. Arrange the following terms in a meaningful/logical order indicating a correct sequence: (1) Windows (2) Walls (3) Floor (4) Foundation (5) Roof (6) Room (A) 3–2–4–1–6–5 (B) 2–3–1–4–5–6 ✔ (C) 4–2–1–5–3–6 (D) 4–3–2–1–6

The logical order for constructing a room would be:

  1. Foundation (4): This is the base on which the entire structure rests.

  2. Walls (2): Walls are built on top of the foundation.

  3. Floor (3): The floor is laid after the walls are erected.

  4. Windows (1): Windows are installed within the walls.

  5. Roof (5): The roof is constructed after the walls are complete.

  6. Room (6): Once all the elements are in place, we have a complete room.

Therefore, the correct order is 2-3-1-4-5-6.


28. ‘Horse is a herbivorous animal.’ This statement is an example of ........ (A) Perception (B) Inference (C) Comparison (D) Implication

Answer: (B) Inference

  • Perception: This refers to the direct awareness of something through the senses (sight, touch, hearing, etc.). In the statement, "Horse" is something we can perceive, but the statement itself goes beyond just perception.

  • Inference: This is the process of drawing a conclusion based on available information or evidence. The statement "Horse is a herbivorous animal" uses our knowledge of horses (evidence) to infer a characteristic about them (herbivorous).

  • Comparison: This involves identifying similarities or differences between things. The statement doesn't explicitly compare the horse to anything else.

  • Implication: This suggests that one thing leads to another. While the statement suggests a connection between being a horse and being herbivorous, it doesn't necessarily imply that all horses must be herbivores (there could be exceptions).

Therefore, "Horse is a herbivorous animal" best exemplifies inference.

29. Which of the following is the valid conclusion based on the statements given below?

Statement I: Some animals are intelligent. Statement II: Intelligent animals are monkeys.

Conclusion 1: All monkeys are intelligent. Conclusion 2: Horses are intelligent.

Answer: (D) Neither 1 nor 2

This is a classic syllogism problem. Let's analyze the statements and conclusions:

  • Statement I: This is a general statement saying some animals are intelligent, but it doesn't specify which animals.

  • Statement II: This is another general statement indicating that all intelligent animals are monkeys (but it doesn't say all monkeys are intelligent).

Conclusions:

  • Conclusion 1 (All monkeys are intelligent): This is not a valid conclusion based on the given statements. Statement II only says intelligent animals are monkeys, but it doesn't guarantee that all monkeys are intelligent (there could be non-intelligent monkeys). This is a fallacy called affirming the consequent.

  • Conclusion 2 (Horses are intelligent): Statement I mentions some animals are intelligent, but it doesn't say anything specific about horses. So, we cannot infer from the given statements whether horses are intelligent or not.

Therefore, neither conclusion 1 nor conclusion 2 is valid based on the provided statements.



30. Which of the following diagrams shows the correct relationship among the terms : Entrepreneurs, Married, Women ?



the diagram labeled (C) accurately depicts the relationship between Entrepreneurs, Married, and Women.

Here's why (C) is the most suitable answer:

  • Women: This circle represents the largest group encompassing all married and entrepreneur women.

  • Married: This circle is completely inside the Women circle, indicating that all married people are women (in this context).

  • Entrepreneurs: This circle overlaps partially with the Women circle, signifying that some women are entrepreneurs, but not all entrepreneurs are women (there could be male entrepreneurs too).

This Venn diagram effectively portrays the concept that:

  • All married people in this context are women.

  • Women can be married or not, and some women choose to be entrepreneurs.

  • Entrepreneurs can be women or men (not limited to women in this case).


Question numbers 31 and 32 are based on the following information : The following is the distribution of number of companies of different types in different districts of a state :

31. For which type of industry the difference between the companies of districts E and B is maximum ?


(A) Engineering and allied (B) Agro-based (C) Chemical-based (D) Textile-based


Based on the information provided, let's calculate the difference in the number of companies between districts E and B for each industry type:

  • Agro-based: E (165) - B (86) = 79

  • Forest-based: E (120) - B (70) = 50

  • Livestock-based: E (176) - B (90) = 86

  • Textile-based: E (132) - B (92) = 40

  • Chemical-based: E (154) - B (86) = 68

  • Engineering and allied: E (166) - B (76) = 90

Analyzing the differences:

  • Engineering and allied has the highest difference (90) between the number of companies in districts E and B.

Therefore, the answer is (A) Engineering and allied.


32. What is the percentage of agro-based industries in district B?

(B) 17.2%

Here, we need to find the percentage of companies in district B that belong to the agro-based industry.

  • Number of companies in district B (for Agro-based industry) = 86 (given in the table)

  • Total number of companies in district B (all industries) = 500 (given in the table)

Percentage of agro-based industries in district B:

(Number of agro-based companies in B / Total companies in B) * 100%

= (86 / 500) * 100%

= 0.172 * 100%

= 17.2%

Therefore, 17.2% of industries in district B are agro-based.


33. In a certain state 60% are married employees and 52% graduate employees. 32% are neither married nor graduate employees. Find the percentage of married and graduate employees: (D) 44%

We can solve this problem using the concept of set theory, specifically by considering these groups as complementary sets.

  • Married employees: 60%

  • Graduate employees: 52%

  • Neither married nor graduate: 32% (We can call this the 'non-married, non-graduate' group)

Key observation: The "non-married, non-graduate" group represents employees who are neither married nor graduates. This implies that they are outside the intersection of the married and graduate employee sets.


Total employees = 100% (assumed for simplicity)

We can use the following relationship to solve this problem:

Total = Married + Graduate - Overlap (Intersection) + Neither

Since we don't have the exact value of the overlap (intersection) between married and graduate employees, we can rearrange the equation to find it:

Overlap (Intersection) = Married + Graduate - Total + Neither

Overlap = 60% + 52% - 100% + 32%

Overlap = 44%

This 44% represents the employees who are both married and graduate.

Therefore, the percentage of married and graduate employees in the state is 44%.


Question numbers 34 and 35 are based on the following information : Monthly expenses on various items of a certain family are shown in the following diagram :



34. Find the angle in degrees associated with sector ‘other’. (A) 63º (B) 90º (C) 108º (D) 72º

From the pie chart, the angle associated with the "Other" sector is approximately 72 degrees.


35. Find the percentage of expenses on sector ‘Food’ : (A) 25% (B) 30% (C) 20% (D) 90%

The pie chart shows that the "Food" sector has a central angle of approximately 108 degrees. However, we cannot calculate the exact percentage of expenses for "Food" without the knowledge of the total angle (360°) or the angle representing 100%. Percentages in pie charts are determined proportionally based on the angle coverage.


36. Which of the following is the correct full form of HTML? (A) Hyper Text Mandatory Language (B) Hyper Text Mix Language (C) Hyper Text Mark-up Language ✔ (D) Hyper Text Media Language


The correct full form of HTML is Hyper Text Markup Language (C).


37. The internet access to common public in India was first introduced in ................... (A) 1995 (B) 1986 (C) 1999 (D) 2000

Answer: (A) 1995

While the internet existed in India before 1995, public access for common people began in 1995.

38. Which among the following is most helpful to type in regional languages on Smart Phones? (A) Typewriter (B) Honey code (C) Unicode ✔ (D) Multimedia

Answer: (C) Unicode

Unicode is a global character encoding standard that allows computers to represent and process text in most writing systems of the world. This makes it essential for typing in regional languages on smartphones.

  • Typewriter: Not relevant for smartphones and limited character set.

  • Honey code: Likely a misspelling of some technology term, but not related to regional language typing.

  • Multimedia: Deals with combining different media types like audio, video, etc., not core functionality for regional language typing.

39. Which among the following is the digital payment app linked to Google? (A) PayTM (B) BHIM (C) Tez (D) MobiKwik


Answer: (C) Tez (Previously known as Google Pay)

Tez was a digital payment app launched by Google in India and later rebranded as Google Pay. While Google might collaborate with other payment apps, Tez/Google Pay has the strongest association with Google.

  • PayTM: Independent digital payment company.

  • BHIM: Stands for Bharat Interface for Money (BHIM), a payment interface developed by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI).

  • MobiKwik: Independent digital payment company.


40. Which among the following is the consortia for higher education e-resources linked to the digital initiatives? (B) e-Shodh Sindhu ✔

Out of the options provided:

  • e-Shodh Ganga is an Open Access Repository of full-text theses submitted to universities in India. It's not a consortium for accessing e-resources.

  • e-Shodh Sindhu is a national consortium of Indian academic institutions that provides access to a wide range of e-resources, including e-journals, e-books, and databases. It's funded by the Ministry of Education, Government of India.

  • e-Shodh Yamuna and e-Shodh Saraswati are not known consortia for higher education e-resources in India.

Therefore, the answer is (B) e-Shodh Sindhu.

41. Kyoto Protocol is for: (D) Global climate change ✔

The Kyoto Protocol is an international treaty that aims to reduce greenhouse gas emissions, combating global climate change. It doesn't directly focus on biodiversity conservation, ozone protection, or wildlife protection, although these issues are connected to climate change.

42. Which one of the natural system is used for hot water for domestic purposes? (A) Solar-Thermal ✔

  • Solar-Thermal systems use sunlight to heat water directly. This is a common and efficient way to get hot water for domestic purposes.

  • Solar-Photovoltaic systems convert sunlight into electricity, not directly heating water.

  • Geo-thermal systems utilize heat from the Earth's core, not directly related to sunlight.

  • Solar-digestor primarily focuses on waste management and biogas production, not directly heating water.

43. Excess growth of aquatic plants in our water bodies is due to ............. (C) Increase in Nitrate and phosphates ✔

Excess nutrients in water bodies, particularly nitrates and phosphates, can lead to eutrophication. This promotes excessive growth of algae and other aquatic plants, disrupting the ecosystem balance. Sodium, while present in water, doesn't directly contribute to this phenomenon.


44. Which one of the following air pollutants is responsible for acid rain?

(A) SO2 ✔ (Sulfur Dioxide)

  • Explanation: Sulfur dioxide (SO2) is a primary air pollutant released from the burning of fossil fuels like coal and oil. When SO2 reacts with water vapor and other chemicals in the atmosphere, it forms sulfuric acid, a major component of acid rain.

  • (B) CO2 (Carbon Dioxide): While a greenhouse gas contributing to climate change, it doesn't directly cause acid rain.

  • (C) CO (Carbon Monoxide): This gas is harmful but doesn't contribute significantly to acid rain.

  • (D) Ozone: Ozone in the upper atmosphere protects us from harmful UV rays, but ground-level ozone can be a pollutant. It's not a primary cause of acid rain.

45. Wet part of the municipal solid waste can be put in use as soil conditioners by using:

(A) Composting ✔

  • Explanation: Composting is a natural process that breaks down organic waste materials (wet waste from kitchens and gardens) into nutrient-rich humus. This humus acts as a soil conditioner, improving soil fertility and structure.

  • (B) Pyrolysis: This process involves heating organic material in the absence of oxygen, producing bio-oil, char, and gases. While the char might have some soil amendment applications, it's not the primary use of pyrolysis for wet waste.

  • (C) Burning and Incineration: These methods destroy organic matter and are not suitable for creating soil conditioners.

46. In Moghal period higher education learning centres were known as .........

(B) Madarasas ✔

  • Explanation: Madarasas were the primary institutions for higher education during the Mughal period. They focused on Islamic studies, but also included subjects like mathematics, science, literature, and philosophy.

  • (A) Maqtabs: These were elementary schools providing basic education in reading, writing, and Quranic studies.

  • (C) Khajkais: This term is not commonly used in the context of Mughal education.

  • (D) Arabi schools: This is a broader term that could encompass madrasas, but doesn't specifically refer to the Mughal period.


47. RUSA scheme is launched mainly to provide ........................

(C) Funding to state level higher education ✔

  • Explanation:

  • (A) Affordable higher education: While improved funding can indirectly make higher education more accessible, RUSA primarily focuses on quality improvement.

  • (B) Quality higher education: Quality improvement is a major objective of RUSA, but it achieves this by providing funding.

  • (C) Funding to state level higher education (Correct): The Rashtriya Uchchatar Shiksha Abhiyan (RUSA) is a centrally sponsored scheme launched by the Government of India to improve the quality of higher education by providing funding to state universities, colleges, and other institutions.

  • (D) Funding to researches in colleges: Research funding is a part of RUSA, but it's not the sole objective. The scheme aims at holistic development of the state higher education system.

48. The science that deals with the relationship of various organisms with their environment is known as ...........................

(C) Ecology ✔

  • Explanation:

  • (A) Anthropology: This science studies human societies and cultures.

  • (B) Economics: This social science deals with production, distribution, and consumption of goods and services.

  • (C) Ecology (Correct): Ecology is the branch of biology that studies the interactions between living organisms (including humans) and their environment, including physical (weather, climate) and biological (other organisms) factors.

  • (D) Geology: This science studies the Earth's solid, liquid, and gaseous features, including rocks, minerals, and the processes that shape them.

49. UGC has been introduced induction course for teachers in higher education to ........................

(B) Prepare for teaching ✔

  • Explanation:

  • (A) Enrich the content knowledge: While the course might enhance knowledge, the primary focus is likely on teaching skills.

  • (B) Prepare for teaching (Correct): The induction course aims to equip new teachers with the pedagogical skills and knowledge necessary to effectively teach in higher education settings.

  • (C) Refresh knowledge: While refreshing knowledge might be a benefit, the main purpose is to develop teaching skills.

  • (D) Develop attitude: Attitude development might be part of the course, but preparing for effective teaching is the core objective.

50. ‘SWAYAM’ is programme platform is developed for .......................

(D) All the above subjects ✔

  • Explanation: SWAYAM (Study Webs of Active-Learning for Young Aspiring Minds) is a government initiative in India that provides an online platform for free access to courses in various disciplines. This includes:

  • Technical subjects: Engineering, science, mathematics, etc.

  • Humanity subjects: Languages, literature, history, etc.

  • Management subjects: Business administration, finance, marketing, etc.

SWAYAM offers courses from various universities and institutions across India, catering to a diverse range of academic fields.


Are you aiming to crack the Maharashtra State Eligibility Test (Maha SET) this year? Look no further! This blog is your one-stop shop for conquering the Maha SET 2024, specifically focusing on Maha SET Computer Science. We'll equip you with the knowledge and strategies you need to ace the exam.

Mastering the Maha SET Syllabus:

The first step to Maha SET glory is understanding the syllabus. Familiarize yourself with the topics covered in both Paper 1 (General Aptitude) and Paper 2 (Computer Science). Numerous resources online and in libraries can help you delve deeper into each subject area.

Maha SET Exam Pattern:

Knowing the exam format is crucial. The Maha SET comprises two papers, each with a specific time limit and marking scheme. Understanding the question types (multiple choice, descriptive, etc.) will help you develop an effective test-taking approach.

Sharpening Your Skills with Maha SET Preparation:

- Textbooks and Reference Materials: Invest in high-quality textbooks and reference materials aligned with the Maha SET Computer Science syllabus. These resources will provide a strong foundation and in-depth knowledge.

- Previous Years' Maha SET Papers: Practice makes perfect! Solving previous years' Maha SET papers will familiarize you with the question styles, difficulty level, and time management techniques.

- Online Resources and Mock Tests: Explore online resources like question banks, mock tests, and video lectures specifically designed for the Maha SET. These can enhance your learning, identify weak areas, and boost your confidence.

Maha SET Preparation Strategies:

- Create a Study Schedule:  Plan your study sessions effectively, allocating sufficient time for each topic. Consistency is key, so aim for regular study periods throughout the week.

- Active Learning Techniques: Don't just passively read! Engage in active learning by taking notes, summarizing key concepts, or discussing topics with peers. This reinforces understanding and improves memory retention.

- Time Management is Key: Practice managing time effectively during mock tests. Develop a strategy for tackling different question formats within the allotted timeframe.

- Stay Motivated and Focused:  The Maha SET journey requires dedication. Stay motivated by reminding yourself of your goals and celebrate your progress along the way.

Remember: The Maha SET is an achievable goal with the right preparation. We'll continue providing valuable tips and resources in upcoming blog posts, so stay tuned!


Practice teaching aptitude

to clear MH SET and NET


  1. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of an effective teacher? A) Strong subject knowledge B) Flexibility in teaching methods C) Rigid adherence to curriculum D) Ability to communicate effectively

  2. Which teaching method encourages students to work collaboratively to solve problems? A) Lecture method B) Expository method C) Inquiry-based learning D) Demonstration method

  3. What does the term "pedagogy" refer to in education? A) Classroom management techniques B) The science of teaching C) Educational technology tools D) Curriculum development strategies

  4. In the context of teaching, what does the term "differentiation" mean? A) Adapting instruction to meet the needs of diverse learners B) Applying uniform teaching methods to all students C) Segregating students based on their abilities D) Focusing only on gifted students

  5. What is the primary goal of formative assessment in teaching? A) Assign grades to students B) Evaluate student learning at the end of a unit C) Provide feedback to improve learning during instruction D) Determine student ranking within the class

  6. Which communication skill is most important for effective teaching? A) Listening B) Speaking C) Writing D) Reading

  7. What does the term "scaffolding" mean in the context of teaching and learning? A) Providing temporary support to help students learn new concepts B) Assigning advanced tasks to challenge students C) Ignoring struggling students to promote independence D) Repeating instructions until students understand

  8. Which of the following is NOT a component of research aptitude? A) Critical thinking B) Data analysis skills C) Memorization ability D) Problem-solving skills

  9. What does the term "classroom management" encompass? A) Maintaining discipline and order in the classroom B) Designing engaging lesson plans C) Communicating effectively with parents D) Organizing extracurricular activities

  10. What is the purpose of reflective teaching practices? A) To improve teaching effectiveness through self-evaluation B) To criticize students' performance openly C) To compare one's teaching style with colleagues' D) To ignore feedback from students

  11. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a learner-centered approach to teaching? A) Encouraging active participation from students B) Focusing solely on the teacher's expertise C) Providing opportunities for student choice and autonomy D) Tailoring instruction to meet individual student needs

  12. Which instructional strategy involves breaking complex tasks into smaller, more manageable steps? A) Task-based learning B) Differentiated instruction C) Chunking D) Lecture method

  13. What does the term "inquiry-based learning" emphasize? A) Memorization of facts and information B) Passive reception of knowledge from the teacher C) Active exploration and discovery by students D) Strict adherence to textbooks

  14. Which of the following is NOT an essential element of effective feedback? A) Timeliness B) Specificity C) Positivity D) Actionability

  15. What role does metacognition play in learning? A) Encourages rote memorization B) Helps students monitor and regulate their own learning C) Promotes competition among students D) Discourages critical thinking

  16. Which teaching method involves guiding students through a series of questions to help them arrive at a deeper understanding of a topic? A) Direct instruction B) Socratic method C) Problem-based learning D) Recitation method

  17. What does the term "inclusive education" refer to? A) Providing education only to academically gifted students B) Excluding students with disabilities from mainstream classrooms C) Educating all students, regardless of their abilities or backgrounds, in the same classroom D) Segregating students based on their socioeconomic status

  18. Which of the following is NOT a type of assessment commonly used in education? A) Summative assessment B) Formative assessment C) Diagnostic assessment D) Evaluative assessment

  19. What does the term "cooperative learning" entail? A) Competitive interactions among students B) Individualized instruction for each student C) Collaborative group work to achieve common learning goals D) Passive reception of knowledge from the teacher

  20. Which teaching approach focuses on real-life experiences and problem-solving skills? A) Traditional instruction B) Expository teaching C) Project-based learning D) Didactic instruction

  21. What term refers to the process of adjusting teaching methods and materials to meet the individual needs of students with different learning styles? A) Standardization B) Homogenization C) Differentiation D) Segregation

  22. Which of the following is an example of a summative assessment? A) Weekly quizzes B) Final project C) Peer evaluation D) Classroom discussion

  23. What is the purpose of a curriculum framework? A) To standardize teaching methods B) To restrict teachers' creativity C) To provide guidelines for curriculum development D) To limit students' learning opportunities

  24. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a constructivist approach to teaching? A) Emphasis on prior knowledge B) Teacher-centered instruction C) Active involvement of students D) Discovery learning

  25. In cooperative learning, what is the primary focus? A) Individual achievement B) Competition among students C) Collaboration and mutual success D) Passive learning

  26. What is the term for a teaching method where students learn by actively exploring real-world problems and challenges? A) Expository teaching B) Direct instruction C) Project-based learning D) Socratic method

  27. Which of the following is NOT an essential skill for effective classroom management? A) Communication skills B) Time management C) Memorization ability D) Conflict resolution

  28. What term describes the process of evaluating students' knowledge, understanding, and skills before instruction begins? A) Summative assessment B) Formative assessment C) Diagnostic assessment D) Evaluative assessment

  29. Which of the following is NOT a type of feedback commonly used in education? A) Positive feedback B) Constructive feedback C) Negative feedback D) Neutral feedback

  30. What is the term for the practice of teaching students with disabilities in regular education classrooms alongside their non-disabled peers? A) Mainstreaming B) Specialization C) Segregation D) Differentiation

  31. What does the term "active learning" refer to? A) Passive reception of knowledge from the teacher B) Engaging students in learning activities that require them to participate actively C) Memorization of facts and information D) Rote learning without understanding

  32. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of using technology in education? A) Increased student engagement B) Access to vast resources and information C) Reduced interaction and collaboration among students D) Personalized learning experiences

  33. What does the term "metacognition" refer to in the context of learning? A) Understanding of one's own cognitive processes and abilities B) Memorization of facts and information C) Ability to recall information from memory D) Speed of processing information

  34. Which of the following is NOT a strategy for promoting critical thinking in the classroom? A) Encouraging students to ask questions B) Providing opportunities for problem-solving C) Focusing solely on rote memorization D) Challenging students' assumptions and beliefs

  35. What is the primary goal of formative assessment? A) Assign grades to students B) Evaluate student learning at the end of a unit C) Provide feedback to improve learning during instruction D) Determine student ranking within the class

  36. Which of the following is a characteristic of a learner-centered approach to teaching? A) Passive learning B) Teacher-centered instruction C) Student autonomy and choice D) Rigid adherence to curriculum

  37. What term describes the process of breaking down complex tasks into smaller, more manageable steps? A) Chunking B) Summarizing C) Compacting D) Streamlining

  38. What is the term for a teaching method where students learn by observing and imitating the actions of others? A) Expository teaching B) Direct instruction C) Modeling D) Inquiry-based learning

  39. Which of the following is NOT a component of effective communication in teaching? A) Clarity B) Conciseness C) Complexity D) Correctness


September 2021 Answer key


  1. Understanding level of teaching includes: (A) (i) Memory and (ii) Aptitude (B) (ii) Aptitude and (iii) Insight (C) (i) Memory and (iii) Insight (CORRECT) (D) (ii) Aptitude and (iv) Creativity

Explanation:

  • Understanding level teaching goes beyond simply memorizing facts. While (i) Memory plays a role in recalling information, it's crucial to develop (iii) Insight. Insight refers to the ability to grasp the relationships between concepts and apply knowledge in new contexts. This is what separates understanding from rote memorization.

  • (ii) Aptitude (natural talent) is important for learning in general, but it's not directly related to the specific skills targeted in understanding level teaching.

  • (iv) Creativity is valuable, but understanding level teaching focuses on building a solid foundation in core concepts, not necessarily generating entirely new ideas.

  1. The most intellectually fertile period of a human being is: (A) Childhood (B) (B) Adolescence (CORRECT) (C) Adulthood (D) Old age

Explanation:

  • During (B) Adolescence, the brain undergoes significant development leading to enhanced cognitive abilities like critical thinking, problem-solving, and abstract reasoning. This makes it a prime time for intellectual exploration and learning.

  • While (A) Childhood lays the groundwork for learning, and (C) Adulthood can be a time for continued learning and expertise, adolescence stands out for its rapid cognitive growth.

  • (D) Old age can be a time of wisdom and experience, but cognitive abilities may decline in some people.

  1. ‘Online Discussion Forum’ of SWAYAM is for: (A) (A) Clearing the doubts (CORRECT) (B) Self-assessment (C) Watching video lectures (D) Downloading reading material

Explanation:

  • SWAYAM is a government initiative in India to provide online learning resources. An online discussion forum is a platform where users can interact, ask questions, and share their understanding. This makes it primarily for (A) Clearing the doubts.

  • While the forum might be used for self-assessment or indirectly help with understanding materials like video lectures or reading material (options B, C, and D), its primary purpose is facilitating discussion and clarification.


  1. History cannot be taught by using ....................... . (A) Digital charts (B) Maps (C) Demonstration method (D) Role play method

Answer:  (C) Demonstration method (CORRECT)

Explanation:

  • History deals with past events, concepts, and ideas. These are not typically things that can be physically demonstrated like scientific experiments or artistic techniques.

  • (A) Digital charts, (B) Maps, and (D) Role play methods can all be effective tools for teaching history. Digital charts and maps can visually represent historical information, while role-playing can help students understand historical events from different perspectives.

  1. Absolute and relative grading are types of ................... grading. (A) Indirect (B) Direct (C) Special (D) Standard

Answer:  (B) Direct (CORRECT)

Explanation:

  • Direct grading methods communicate a student's performance level directly, typically as a percentage, letter grade, or score. Absolute and relative grading are both direct methods.

  • (A) Indirect grading focuses on providing feedback for improvement rather than assigning a specific score.

  • (C) Special grading might be used for specific circumstances, like incomplete work or exceptional cases.

  • (D) Standard grading is not a specific type but can refer to a common grading system used within a school or institution.

  1. Most essential quality for a researcher is ........................... . (A) Punctuality (B) Intelligence (C) Genuine interest in research (D) Mastery over own subject

Answer:  (C) Genuine interest in research (CORRECT)

Explanation:

  • Research can be a demanding and time-consuming process. A genuine interest in the research topic fuels the motivation to keep exploring, digging deeper, and overcoming challenges.

  • (A) Punctuality is important for managing time, but not the most crucial factor.

  • (B) Intelligence is beneficial, but passion for the research can drive further exploration beyond initial knowledge.

  • (D) Mastery over own subject provides a strong foundation but doesn't guarantee a researcher will be motivated by a specific research question.

  1. Recording of ‘reflective notes’ in qualitative research is called as ............................ . (A) Coding (B) Memoing (C) Decoding (D) Instructing

Answer:  (B) Memoing (CORRECT)

Explanation:

  • Memoing is a process of recording initial thoughts, reflections, and insights during qualitative research data collection. These notes help researchers organize their observations, interpretations, and potential connections within the data.

  • (A) Coding involves categorizing data based on specific themes or patterns.

  • (C) Decoding is the process of interpreting symbols or messages, not typically used for researcher notes.

  • (D) Instructing refers to providing directions or guidance, not note-taking.


  1. A variable ‘Academic Achievement’ will be measured on ..................... . (A) Nominal (B) Interval (C) Ratio (D) Ordinal

Answer:  (B) Interval (CORRECT)

Explanation:

  • Academic achievement is often measured using a grading system with equal intervals between grades (e.g., A, B, C). This allows us to say that a B is one step higher than a C and two steps higher than a D.

  • (A) Nominal data only classifies items into categories without any inherent order (e.g., shirt colors).

  • (C) Ratio data has a true zero point with meaningful comparisons of ratios (e.g., height, weight). While grades might have a lowest possible score (0%), this doesn't necessarily indicate complete absence of knowledge.

  • (D) Ordinal data involves rankings or order, but the intervals between ranks may not be equal (e.g., class rankings).

  1. If a frequency distribution has some extreme scores then appropriate measure of central tendency will be ......................... . (A) Mean (B) Mean (not a typo) (CORRECT) (C) Mode (D) Range

Answer:  (B) Mean

Explanation:

  • The mean, or average, can be sensitive to extreme scores in a data set. However, if you need a single value to represent the "center" of the data, the mean can still be informative, especially if the extreme scores are not too numerous.

  • (C) Mode is the most frequent value, which might not be representative of the center if there are outliers.

  • (D) Range simply tells you the difference between the highest and lowest values, not where the majority of data falls.

It's important to note that while the mean can be sensitive to outliers, it can still be a useful measure depending on the context and the number of outliers.  In some cases, the median (the middle value when data is ordered) might be a better choice for data with extreme scores.

  1. A research paper is based on...... .................. . (i) Primary data (ii) Secondary data (iii) Descriptive data (A) Only (i) (B) Only (ii) (C) (i) and (ii) (D) (ii) and (iii)

Answer:  (C) (i) and (ii) (CORRECT)

Explanation:

  • Research papers can be based on both (i) Primary data collected by the researcher themself through experiments, surveys, interviews, etc., and (ii) Secondary data collected by others and available in various sources like journals, books, reports, etc.

  • (iii) Descriptive data simply refers to data that describes a phenomenon or population. While research papers often involve descriptive statistics to summarize data, they also go beyond mere description by analyzing the data, drawing conclusions, and contributing to existing knowledge.


How to Find Your Maharashtra State Eligibility Test (MH-SET) Results

The Maharashtra State Eligibility Test (MH-SET) is an important exam for those aspiring to be lecturers in universities and colleges of Maharashtra. The website you provided allows you to search for results from previous exams.

Searching for MH-SET Results

The website provides three ways to search for your MH-SET results:

  • By Name: Enter your full name in the designated field.

  • By Seat Number: Enter your seat number as provided on your admit card.

  • By Application Number: Enter your application number.

Important Note

The website emphasizes that the results are only preliminary and may be subject to change.

Additional Resources

For more information about the MH-SET exam, you can visit the official website of the Maharashtra State University (MSU).

I hope this short blog is helpful!






The 39th Maharashtra State Eligibility Test (MH-SET) was conducted on April 7, 2024, by Savitribai Phule Pune University at 18 centers across Maharashtra and Goa. We understand the wait for the answer key is crucial! Great news - our website now has the MH-SET Answer Key available question by question for your review.

This provides you with the opportunity to check your answers and gauge your performance

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